Thank you so much for the tips, Ivan.
I did as you suggested for this strategy with a rebalancing band of 20% (Note: link was shared in an earlier post) on an excel spreadsheet and noticed the following:
A1. After following the orders prescribed in the Portfolio section and the Simulated Orders section, I ended up with a portfolio of 29 counters which totals 122% and a cash component of -16%. The total portfolio adds up to 105%.
A2. Some counters have a weight of 2+% while some have a weight of 6.6%.
A3. Assuming my portfolio value is USD30,000, should I implement the strategy based on these numbers, all 29 counters (122%) will cost me USD36,300. So on top of my USD30,000, I'd need to borrow USD6,300 to implement it. The negative cash component (-16%) works out to -USD4,800.
Thanks for sharing about VIX, and that a large spike in VIX will result in a larger model tracking error.
My questions are:
B1. Why is the negative cash component -16% instead of -21%? At -21%, it will work out to be USD6,300 which correspond to the loan amount in A3, and it will also allow the portfolio to total 100% and not 105%.
B2. How do I conclusively prove that the model has indeed overordered due to the spike in VIX? Does the fact that all 29 counters add up to 122.1% mean that it has indeed overordered?
B3. Assuming B1 is correct, do I then continue to trust the model and implement it as prescribed? If I do, I will end up with what I described in A3.
B4. If I should not trust the model entirely in such scenarios, what manual adjustments do I have to make in order to make up for the model's overordering?
B5. Finally, if I do not want to maintain any negative cash (i.e. don't want to take a loan), and want to only deploy USD30,000, I would take it that USD30,000 is 122% and split the principal across the 29 counters based on their weightage, yes?
Thanks for your patience in guiding me to make the most of PyInvesting!